Daily Challenge, 7 November 2026
The ten questions set on 7 November 2026, from real judiciary papers. Pick an answer to see whether you were right and why, or open "Show the answer".
1. Professional Ethics & BCI Rules
Under Section 39 of the Advocates Act, 1961, which provisions of the Limitation Act, 1963 apply, so far as may be, to appeals under Sections 37 and 38 of the Advocates Act?
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Answer: B. Sections 5 and 12Section 39 applies Sections 5 (extension of the prescribed period for sufficient cause) and 12 (exclusion of time in legal proceedings) of the Limitation Act, 1963 to appeals to the Bar Council of India and to the Supreme Court.
From: Professional Ethics & BCI Rules Practice Set 1
2. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
Assertion (A): When Z, a person of unsound mind, attempts to kill A, A has a right of private defence against Z although Z commits no offence. Reason (R): Under Section 36 of the BNS, when an act is not an offence by reason of the unsoundness of mind of the doer, every person has the same right of private defence against it as he would have if the act were that offence.
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Answer: A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of ASection 36, with its illustration (a), gives a right of private defence against acts excused by insanity, youth, intoxication or misconception. That is the reason A may defend himself against Z, so R explains A.
From: Assertion and Reason Practice Set 1
3. Professional Ethics & BCI Rules
A complaint against advocate G is pending before one disciplinary committee of a State Bar Council. The complainant applies to the State Bar Council for the inquiry to be made by a different committee. Under Section 35(1A) of the Advocates Act, 1961:
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Answer: D. The State Bar Council may withdraw it and direct another of its disciplinary committees to inquireSection 35(1A) allows the State Bar Council, of its own motion or on application by any person interested, to withdraw a proceeding pending before its disciplinary committee and direct the inquiry to be made by any other disciplinary committee of that Council. The Bar Council of India's power under Section 36(2) to withdraw proceedings to itself is a separate power.
From: Professional Ethics & BCI Rules Practice Set 1
4. Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 replaced which earlier law?
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Answer: B. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872Section 170(1) BSA repeals the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, while Section 170(2) saves proceedings pending at commencement, which continue under the old Act.
From: Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam Practice Set 1
5. Telangana Local Laws
Consider the following statements with reference to section 59 of the Telangana Forest Act, 1967: 1. An offence under section 52 (counterfeiting marks on trees and timber and altering boundary marks) cannot be compounded. 2. Where the offence is of a trivial nature, the compensation accepted shall not exceed fifty rupees. 3. Where the forest produce is to be retained by the Government, the compensation shall not be less than the value of the produce or more than twice that value. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: D. 1 and 2 onlySection 59(1) excludes offences under sections 52 and 55 from compounding, and clause (i) caps compensation for a trivial offence at fifty rupees. Under clause (iii), where the produce is to be retained by the Government, the compensation is not less than its value and not more than four times that value, not twice.
From: Telangana Local Laws Practice Set 1
6. Meghalaya Local Laws
Where, after standard rent is fixed, the landlord at his own expense makes an addition or improvement to the house (not being repairs under Section 6), the increase in monthly rent allowed by Section 3(3) of the Meghalaya Urban Areas Rent Control Act, 1972 takes effect from:
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Answer: A. The date on which the addition or improvement was completedSection 3(3) entitles the landlord to an increase not exceeding one-twelfth of seven and a half per cent per annum of the cost of the addition, improvement or alteration, with effect from the date on which it was completed.
From: Meghalaya Local Laws Practice Set 1
7. Maharashtra Local Laws
Consider the following statements regarding Section 16(1) of the Maharashtra Rent Control Act, 1999: 1. Erection of a permanent structure on the premises by the tenant without the landlord's written consent is a ground for eviction. 2. Installation of an air-conditioner by the tenant, with municipal permission wherever necessary, is a 'permanent structure' for this purpose. 3. Non-user of the premises, without reasonable cause, for the purpose for which they were let, for a continuous period of six months immediately preceding the date of the suit is a ground for eviction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: A. 1 and 3 onlySection 16(1)(b) and 16(1)(n) support statements 1 and 3. The Explanation to Section 16(1)(b) excludes from 'permanent structure' work done with municipal permission, wherever necessary, such as a wooden partition, false ceiling or installation of an air-conditioner, so statement 2 is wrong.
From: Maharashtra Local Laws Practice Set 1
8. Intellectual Property Law
A hotel receives sound recordings and transmits them by cable to television sets in its residential guest rooms. When the copyright owner objects, the hotel argues that each occupied room is a private place where no member of the public is present. Under the Copyright Act, 1957:
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Answer: B. The transmission is deemed communication to the public, as the Explanation to Section 2(ff) covers residential rooms of a hotelThe Explanation to Section 2(ff) deems communication through satellite, cable or other simultaneous means to more than one household or place of residence, including residential rooms of any hotel or hostel, to be communication to the public. Section 52(1)(k)(i) excludes hotels and similar commercial establishments from the exemption for residential premises.
From: Intellectual Property Law Practice Set 1
9. Current Affairs
The Colombo Security Conclave Table Top Exercise, held from 9 to 11 September 2026 under the Indian Navy's Eastern Naval Command, was conducted on which subject?
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Answer: A. Coordinated response to illicit maritime activities in the Indian Ocean RegionThe exercise was titled 'Coordinated Response to Illicit Maritime Activities in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR)' and covered maritime terrorism, narcotics smuggling, human trafficking and IUU fishing. PIB linked it to India's MAHASAGAR vision.
From: Current Affairs: September 2026
10. Kerala Local Laws
Consider the following statements about the definition of 'tenant' in Section 2(6) of the Kerala Buildings (Lease and Rent Control) Act, 1965: 1. It includes the heir or heirs of a deceased tenant. 2. It includes a person continuing in possession after the termination of the tenancy in his favour. 3. It includes a Kudikidappukaran as defined in the Kerala Land Reforms Act, 1963. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: A. 1 and 2 onlySection 2(6) of the Kerala Buildings (Lease and Rent Control) Act, 1965 includes the heirs of a deceased tenant and a person continuing in possession after termination of his tenancy. It expressly excludes a Kudikidappukaran, a person placed in occupation by the tenant, and certain farmees of local bodies.
From: Kerala Local Laws Practice Set 1